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Point of Care Testing and Laboratory Procedures practice questions for the CCMA exam

Point of Care Testing and Laboratory Procedures is 9 of the 150 scored questions (6%) on the CCMA exam, part of Clinical Patient Care (84 questions). Try 5 free questions below; open each one to see the answer, why the other options are wrong and the sources.

Question 1

In a federally regulated (DOT) urine drug test collection, what is the acceptable specimen temperature range?

  1. 90 to 100 degrees F (32 to 38 degrees C)
  2. 80 to 90 degrees F (27 to 32 degrees C)
  3. 100 to 104 degrees F (38 to 40 degrees C)
  4. 70 to 80 degrees F (21 to 27 degrees C)
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. 90 to 100 degrees F (32 to 38 degrees C)

Under 49 CFR 40.65 the collector reads the temperature strip no later than 4 minutes after receiving the specimen; the acceptable range is 32 to 38 degrees C (90 to 100 degrees F).

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. 80 to 90 degrees F (27 to 32 degrees C): This range is too cool; a fresh specimen is near body temperature.
  • C. 100 to 104 degrees F (38 to 40 degrees C): This range is above the accepted range set in the regulation.
  • D. 70 to 80 degrees F (21 to 27 degrees C): This is room temperature and suggests a substituted specimen.

Sources

Question 2

Which urine specimen is preferred for a urine pregnancy test when timing allows?

  1. Specimen after drinking a liter of water
  2. Random specimen after lunch
  3. First-morning void
  4. 24-hour collection
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. First-morning void

First-morning urine is the most concentrated and usually has more hCG than urine collected later in the day.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Specimen after drinking a liter of water: Drinking a lot of fluid dilutes the urine and lowers the hCG concentration.
  • B. Random specimen after lunch: A random specimen later in the day may be more dilute.
  • D. 24-hour collection: A 24-hour collection is for measuring substances excreted over a day, not hCG screening.

Sources

Question 3

A family practice holds only a CLIA Certificate of Waiver. Which test may the medical assistant perform in this office under that certificate?

  1. Potassium hydroxide (KOH) skin scraping prep
  2. Visual color-comparison urine hCG test
  3. Qualitative semen analysis for sperm motility
  4. Microscopic urine sediment examination
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Visual color-comparison urine hCG test

Visual color comparison urine pregnancy tests are on the waived test list in 42 CFR 493.15(c). KOH preps, urine sediment exams, and qualitative semen analysis are provider-performed microscopy procedures that need a different certificate.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Potassium hydroxide (KOH) skin scraping prep: KOH preparations are provider-performed microscopy (PPM) procedures, not waived tests.
  • C. Qualitative semen analysis for sperm motility: Qualitative semen analysis is a PPM procedure, not a waived test.
  • D. Microscopic urine sediment examination: Urine sediment examination is a PPM procedure, not a waived test.

Sources

Question 4

Which description best defines point-of-care testing (POCT)?

  1. Testing sent by courier to a reference laboratory for overnight processing
  2. Testing done at or near the patient during the visit
  3. Testing performed only in a hospital's central laboratory by technologists
  4. Testing that can be resulted only after a pathologist reviews the slides
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Testing done at or near the patient during the visit

POCT is laboratory testing done at or near the site of patient care. Because the specimen does not travel to a central lab, the result is available quickly enough to guide decisions during the encounter.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Testing sent by courier to a reference laboratory for overnight processing: Sending a specimen to an outside lab is the opposite of point-of-care testing.
  • C. Testing performed only in a hospital's central laboratory by technologists: Central-lab testing requires specimen transport, which POCT avoids.
  • D. Testing that can be resulted only after a pathologist reviews the slides: Pathologist review describes anatomic pathology, not near-patient testing.

Sources

Question 5

A patient is collecting a semen specimen for a fertility evaluation. Which instruction is correct?

  1. No abstinence is needed, and the sample can be dropped off at the lab the next day
  2. Abstain from ejaculation for at least 10 days and keep the sample refrigerated until delivery
  3. Abstain 2 to 3 days (no more than 5) and deliver it within 30 minutes at body temperature
  4. Collect the sample in a regular condom and freeze it overnight
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Abstain 2 to 3 days (no more than 5) and deliver it within 30 minutes at body temperature

For the best count, the patient avoids ejaculation for 2 to 3 days, but no longer than 5. The sample is brought to the lab within 30 minutes, kept near body temperature, and should be examined within 2 hours. Follow the lab's own instructions if they differ.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. No abstinence is needed, and the sample can be dropped off at the lab the next day: Abstinence affects the count, and a next-day sample is too old to analyze.
  • B. Abstain from ejaculation for at least 10 days and keep the sample refrigerated until delivery: Abstaining more than 5 days can lower quality, and the sample must stay near body temperature, not refrigerated.
  • D. Collect the sample in a regular condom and freeze it overnight: Only a special collection condom supplied by the provider is used, and the sample must reach the lab fresh, not frozen.

Sources

Cheat sheets for this topic

Point of Care Testing and Laboratory Procedures terms

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